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Chapter_52.docx-Chapter 52. Pain Management: Acute and

Question 1 (1 point) The ﬁrst disease proven to be bacterial in origin was Question 1 options: A) yellow fever. B) anthrax. C) malaria. D) cholera. E) tuberculosis. Save Question 2 (1 point) Microbes can be compared to humans because Question 2 options: A) they both reproduce B) they both respond to external smuli C) they both possess all of the above characteriscs. D) they are both composed of cells E) they both internalize chemicals and energy Save Question 3 (1 point) Which of the following is NOT true of endospores? Question 3 options: Endospores are resistant to boiling and chemicals. Endospores are dormant. Sporulation results in the degradation of the cell wall. Endospores are a reproductive structure. Bacillus and Clostridium are genera that produce them. Save Question 4 (1 point) Probably one of the most imortant contributions of Robert Koch in his quest for proving the germ theory of disease was the Question 4 options: A) development of asepsis in surgery. B) technique of growing microbes in pure cultures. C) use of the bunsen burner. D) use of test animals in research. Save Question 5 (1 point) This theory states that living organisms are derived from pre-exisng living organisms Question 5 options: A) spontaneous generation theory B) germ theory C) biogenesis theory D) cell theory E) cremation theory Save Question 6 (1 point) Which one of the following scientists disproved spontaneous generation by using swn-necked ﬂasks in his eperiments? Question 6 options: A) Tyndall B) Semmelweis C) Koch D) Redi E) Pasteur Save Question 7 (1 point) Anton van Leeuwenhoek was the ﬁrst person in history to: Question 7 options: A) develop a taxonomic system. B) view protozoa and bacteria. C) use a magnifying glass. D) prove the germ theory. E) disprove spontaneous generation. Save Question 8 (1 point) All of the following individuals were involved in the development of the germ theory of disease EXCEPT: Question 8 options: A) Pasteur B) i don't know C) Koch. D) Fracastoro E) Francesco Redi Save Question 9 (1 point) Microbiology is the study of any small substance that you cannot see without using a microscope Question 9 options: True False Save Question 10 (1 point) Lipid A poron of the lipopolysaccharide of Gram negave cells is also known as Question 10 options: mycolic acid. pilin. lipopolysaccharide. endotoxin. teichoic acid. Save Question 11 (1 point) Which of the following statements concerning Koch's postulates is false?

BIO | 215 | Microbiology | homework | Question 1 (1 point) The ﬁrst 

Chapter 19. Drugs Aﬀecng the Immune System Mulple Choice Idenfy the choice that best completes the statement or answers the queson. __3__ 1. Aenuated vaccines are also known as: 1. Killed vaccines 2. Booster vaccines 3. Inacvated vaccines 4. Live vaccines _1_ 2. Live aenuated inﬂuenza vaccine (FluMist) may be administered to: 1. All paents over 6 months of age 2. Paents between ages 2 and 49 with no risk factors 3. Paents with an upper respiratory infecon (URI) or asthma 4. Pregnant women _4_ 3. The reason that two MMR vaccines at least a month apart are recommended is: 1. The second dose of MMR “boosts” the immunity built from the ﬁrst dose. 2. Two vaccines 1 month apart is the standard dosing for all live virus vaccines. 3. If the two MMR vaccine doses are given too close together there is a greater likelihood of severe localized reacon to the vaccine. 4. Only 95% of paents are fully immunized for measles aﬅer the ﬁrst vaccine, with 99% having immunity aﬅer two doses of MMR. _3_ 4. The MMR vaccine is not recommended for pregnant women because: 1. Pregnant women do not build adequate immunity to the vaccine. 2. There is a risk of the pregnant women developing measles encephalopathy. 3. There is a risk of the fetus developing congenital rubella syndrome. 4. Pregnant women can receive the MMR vaccine. _4_ 5. If the measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella (MMRV) combined vaccine is ordered to be given as the ﬁrst MMR and varicella dose to a child the CDC recommends: 1. Parents be informed of the increased risk of fever and febrile seizures over the MMR plus varicella two-shot regimen. 2. Paents must also receive MMRV as the second dose of MMR and varicella in order to build adequate immunity. 3. Paents be premedicated with acetaminophen 15 minutes before the vaccine is given. 4. Paents should not be around pregnant women for the ﬁrst 48 hours aﬅer the vaccine is given. _4_ 6. The rotavirus vaccine (RotaTeq, Rotarix): 1. Is a live vaccine that replicates in the small intesne, providing acve immunity against rotavirus 2. Should not be administered to infants who are or may be potenally immunocompromised 3. Is not given to an infant who has a febrile illness (temperature greater than 100.5oF) 4. All of the above _2_ 7. Varicella vaccine is recommended to be given to paents who are: 1. HIV posive with a CD4+ T-lymphocyte percentage less than 15% 2. Taking corcosteroids (up to 2 mg/kg/day or less than 20 mg/day) 3. Pregnant 4. Immunocompromised __2_ 8. Zoster vaccine (Zostavax) is: 1. A live varicella zoster vaccine from the same strain used to develop the varicella vaccine 2. Eﬀecve in prevenng varicella zoster in paents of all ages 3. Recommended for paents age 40 to 80 who have had chickenpox 4. Administered at the same me as other live vaccines, as long as they are given the same day _4_ 9. True contraindicaons to diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP or Tdap) vaccine include: 1. Fever up to 104oF (40.5oC) aﬅer previous DTaP vaccine 2. Family history of seizures aﬅer DTaP vaccine 3. Adolescent pregnancy 4. Anaphylacc reacon with a previous dose

BIO | 367 | Pharmacology | lecture notes | Chapter 19. Drugs Aﬀecng the 

1. Epithelial ssue is characterized by each of these traits, except that a. It lacks blood vessels b. It funcons in secreon, absorpon, and excreon c. Epithelial cells are loosely packed and have an extensive intercellular material d. It is anchored to a basement 2. The outer layer of the skin is composed of _____ a. Transional epithelium b. Pseudostra

BIO | 110 | Biology I | study guides | 1. Epithelial ssue is charact

36. Fibrous proteins contain a structure that is:  Chapter 9 A) rounded and compact. B) globular. C) only comprised of secondary structure. D) linear/extended. E) random and variable. 37. While one gene usually specifies one enzyme, which of the following is/are NOT true?  Chapter 9 A) One gene can specify a single enzyme if that enzyme contains a single type of polypeptide chain. B) One gene can specify parts of two enzymes if the enzymes have one type of polypeptide chain in common. C) One enzyme may be determined by two genes if the enzyme has two different types of polypeptide chains. D) One mutation may cause multiple nutritional requirements if it interferes with the synthesis of an intermediate common to several pathways. E) Two mutations in the same gene can never have different effects, even when studied in great biochemical detail. 38. Degeneracy in the genetic code is best illustrated by: Chapter 9 A) stop codons. B) threonine codons. C) tryptophan codons. D) methionine codons. E) operator sequences. 39. The amber mutations initially discovered by Sydney Brenner and colleagues was eventually shown to include a(n): Chapter 9 A) unusual amino acid that generated an amber color in the affected bacteria. B) premature stop codon within the gene’s open reading frame. C) insertion mutation that creates a translational frameshift. D) previously unknown signal for speeding the translation process. E) a deletion mutation that creates a translational frameshift. 40. Which could be an anticodon for the amino acid isoleucine? Chapter 9 A) UAA B) UAG C) UAU D) UAA and UAG E) UAA, UAG, and UAU 41. The DNA template strand for a particular amino acid is 5′-ATG-3′. What RNA sequence would be transcribed for this codon, what tRNA anticodon would recognize it, and what amino acid would be added in response to this codon? Chapter 9 a. 5′-CAU-3′ (RNA sense); 3′-GUA-5′ (tRNA anticodon); histidine b. 3′-AUG-5′ (RNA sense); 3′-UAC-5′ (tRNA anticodon); valine c. 5′-CAU-3′ (RNA sense); 3′-AUG-5’ (tRNA anticodon); histidine d. 5′-UUU-3′ (RNA sense); 3′-AAA-5′ (tRNA anticodon); phenylalanine e. 5′-AUG-3′ (RNA sense); 3′-UAC-5′ (tRNA anticodon); methionine 42. The ribosome is the primary site of: Chapter 9 A. oxidative phosphorylation. B. protein packaging. C. protein synthesis. D. cellular respiration. E. amino acid storage. 43. The proteome for humans is about 70,000 proteins whereas only 21,000 protein-coding genes have been discovered. Which statement could explain this? Chapter 9 A. Splicing of eukaryotic mRNA can result in the production of more than one protein from a single gene. B. Many of our proteins are actually produced by symbiotic organisms in our bodies. C. Splicing of eukaryotic mRNA can result in the production of more than one protein from a single gene and many of our proteins are actually produced by symbiotic organisms in our bodies. D. We do not know enough about the human genome to explain this fact. 44. Oswald Avery and colleagues strengthened scientific support that DNA was the transforming factor by replicating the Griffith experiment with some important differences in experimental design. The key difference was: A) purifying S strain DNA and RNA from other biomolecules. B) systematically eliminating the impact of classes of S strain biomolecules using enzymatic digestion before mixing with R strain live cells. C) injecting S strain DNA directly into R strain cells and observing the change in phenotype. D) Avery used Escherichia coli rather than Streptococcus as it is easier to transform. E) All of the answer options are correct. 45. RISC stands for A. RNA induced suppressing complex B. RNA interfering suppressing complex C. RNA induced silencing complex D. RNA introducing siRNA coordination More practice problems: 1. In wheat kernel color is determined by a pair of genes in a quantitative way. Each of the two genes can have two alleles (A1, A2, B1, B2). Kernel color ranges from red, when four type 1 alleles (either A1 or B1) are present, to white, when four type 2 alleles (either A2 or B2) are present. Three intermediate colors (dark pink, medium pink, and light pink) can occur depending on the relative numbers type 1 and type 2 alleles. Using the branched diagram approach, calculate the expected proportions of the five phenotypes that would be produced by a cross between two wheat plants with medium pink kernels that are heterozygous for both genes: A1A2 B1B2 x A1A2 B1B2 .

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