General Biology

Homework Ch 15 1. In a hypothetical population of tree swallows, 18 individuals are homozygous for the c4 allele, 22 individuals are heterozygous for the allele, and 10 individuals lack the allele. What is the frequency of the c4 allele? A. 0.29 B. 0.36 C. 0.40 D. 0.58 E. 0.80 In a hypothetical population of sawﬂies, 20 percent of the population is homozygous for allele A and 45 percent is homozygous for allele a . Assuming that A and a are the only alleles at this locus, what percent of the population is heterozygous? A. 10 percent B. 20 percent C. 35 percent D. 45 percent E. Insuﬃcient information is given to answer the question. Which of the following statements about allele frequencies is true? A. It is possible to have a negative allele frequency. B. Allele frequencies can be greater than 1 in some populations. C. The sum of all allele frequencies is 0. D. All of the above E. None of the above Which of the following statements is true? A. Two diﬀerent populations can have the same allele frequency but diﬀerent genotype frequencies. B. Populations that are polymorphic have only one allele at a locus. C. If an allele is ﬁxed in a population, that population is polymorphic. D. All of the above E. None of the above Which of the following statements is false ? A. Populations of individuals evolve. B. Evolution and natural selection are interchangeable terms. C. Developmental change occurs within an individual. D. Evolutionary change requires genetic change. E. All of the above are true; none is false. Which of the following evolutionary processes creates new genetic variation? A. Natural selection B. Genetic drift C. Mutation D. Both a and b E. Both b and c Researchers suspect that the gene FOXP2 , which is involved in speech and cognition, has been under positive selection in the human lineage. Which of the following would provide the strongest support for such a claim? A. Genotypes at this locus are at Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium. B. There is a higher rate of nonsynonymous substitutions than synonymous ones. C. There is a lower rate of nonsynonymous substitutions than synonymous ones. D. The gene evolves following the molecular clock. E. The gene is a pseudogene. Which of the following statements about genomes is true? A. The variation in genome size among animals is greater than the variation in the number of genes. B. The variation in genome size among animals is less than the variation in the number of genes. C. Most of the DNA in humans codes for proteins. D. Both a and c E. Both b and c Which of the following best describes natural selection? A. Chance variations in traits B. The diﬀerential survival and reproduction of individuals C. The processes that lead individuals to resemble their parents D. The potential for all species to increase rapidly in number E. The immutability of species Reading Quiz Ch 15 1. Which of the following statements about mutations is false ? A. Most mutations are either harmful or neutral. B. Only rarely does a human carry a new mutation in his or her genome. C. Mutation rates are very low for most loci. D. The current human population carries billions of new mutations that were not present in previous generations.

BIOL | 1001 | General Biology | homework | Homework Ch 15 1. In a hypothe

1. Which features of life and the cell cycle do not contribute to inheritable genetic variation in a species? A) Independent assortment of chromosomes in meiosis B) Crossing Over in meiosis C) Random mutation in somatic tissue D) Zygotes produced by the fusion of two uniquely produced gametes. E) C and D Use the following to answer questions 2-4. The p53 protein monitors cellular DNA for damage. If damage is detected, p53 halts the cell cycle and activates repair enzymes. Once DNA damage has been repaired, p53 allows cellular division to continue. In the cases where the DNA damage can not be repaired, p53 directs the cell to kill itself. 2. Human cells typically spend most of their time is G 0 or G 1 . If DNA damage is detected, at which checkpoint is p53 most likely to halt cell cycle progression until the DNA damage is ﬁxed? A) Spindle checkpoint B) G 2 /M checkpoint C) G 1 /S checkpoint D) Either A or B E) All of the above. 3. Suppose a human cell has a functional p53 but carries a mutation that eliminates the ability of the cell to kill itself. What would be the most likely outcome of the cell cycle in this cell if the p53 protein detected unrepairable DNA damage? A) Cell division could continue as the cycle lacks the ability to kill itself. B) A long as p53 was active, the cell cycle would halt at the G1/S checkpoint. C) The cell would be likely to turn cancerous as damaged cells continued to divide. D) The cell would arrest via the Spindle checkpoint when chromosomes failed to line up during metaphase. E) Both A and C 4. In the picture above, p53 is acting A) as a proto-oncogene because when it is mutated it acts as an oncogene. B) as an oncogene, because cells become cancerous without it. C) as a tumor-supressor gene, because it halts cellular division of damaged cells. D) both A and B E) both A and C 5. Suppose your evil roommate has a plan to engineer a group of cells to have the same receptor for the protein epinephrine. Your roommate hopes to control the world by making all cells to respond identically to the protein epinephrine. Are you worried that your roommate’s plan will be successful? A) Yes, the same receptor will cause the same response. B) No, surface receptors on a diﬀerent cells are never the same. C) No, G protein-coupled receptors require a GXF to modulate a signal transduction. D) No, the same type of receptor can have diﬀerent transduction pathways to create diﬀerent cellular responses. E) B and D Use the following to answer questions 6-7. Nondisjunction is the failure of chromosomes to segregate to opposite ends of the spindle during anaphase. Consider a human germ cell ( n =23) that is entering meiosis. Suppose you are observing a germ cell in which 22 pairs of homologous chromosomes segregate normally during anaphase I of meiosis but there is a nondisjunction of one homologous pair of chromosomes during anaphase I of meiosis. 6. At the end of meiosis you would observe A) 2 cells with 24 chromosomes and 2 cells with 22 chromosomes. B) 1 cell with 23 chromosomes and 1 cell with 22 chromosomes. C) 3 cells with 24 chromosomes and one cell with 22 chromosomes. D) 1 cell with 24 chromosomes and 1 cell with 22 chromosomes. E) 2 cells with 23 chromosomes, one cell with 22 chromosomes and one cell with 24 chromosomes.

BIOL | 1001 | General Biology | exam | 1. Which features of life and 

Mastery_Quiz_Questions_Chapter_10.docx-Mastery Quiz Quesons Chapter 10 Question

BIOL 1001 Exam 1 practice questions (Kessler) FA19 1. A covalent bond is the sharing of _______ between atoms while an ionic bond is the _______. (A) Neutrons; sharing of electrons (B) Electrons; electric attraction between two atoms (C) Protons; electric attraction between two atoms (D) Protons; sharing of electrons (E) Electrons; transfer of electrons from one atom to another 2. Irn-Bru is a popular soft drink in Scotland. Us Scots love it, but many others just don’t “get it”, arguing that it tastes odd. Compared to the pH of Coke (around 3.0), Irn-Bru tests at a reasonable pH of 5.0. So, I’m arguing back that regardless the odd taste, In- Bru is healthier for teeth! What is the H + ion concentration difference between Irn-Bru and Coke? (A) Coke has 100x more H + ’s (B) Irn-Bru has 100x more H + ’s (C) Coke has 1000x more H + ’s (D) Coke has 200x more H + ’s (E) Irn-Bru has 200x more H + ’s 3. In order to market Irn-Bru in the United States, you want to conduct a controlled experiment to prove that it is better for one’s teeth than Coke. You use extracted teeth and quantify the amount of enamel erosion in a 24-hour period. You then conduct a statistical test to determine if Irn-Bru eroded the enamel less than Coke. What would the null hypothesis be in this particular experiment? (A) Coke will cause more enamel erosion than Irn -Bru. (B) There will be no difference in enamel erosion between Coke and Irn-Bru. (C) If there’s no difference in the enamel erosion between Coke and Irn-Bru, then the pH’s aren’t different. (D) Irn-Bru will cause more enamel erosion than Coke. (E) None of these are a valid null hypothesis. 4. Which conclusion would prove that Irn-Bru is better for your teeth than Coke, and what statistical test would be most appropriate for this experiment? (A) p>0.05; reject the null hypothesis; Student’s t-test (B) p<0.05; accept the null hypothesis; Student’s t-test (C) p>0.05; accept the null hypothesis; Standard deviation (D) p<0.05; reject the null hypothesis; Student’s t-test (E) p<0.05; reject the null hypothesis; Standard deviation 1 BIOL 1001 Exam 1 practice questions (Kessler) FA19 5. Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules, the solute molecule in the center of the figure below is most likely: (A) nonpolar (B) hydrophobic (C) uncharged (D) negatively charged (E) positively charged 6. If an unknown compound is made up of carbons, hydrogens, and oxygens in a 1:2:1 ratio you immediately know that this compound is a… (A) Protein (B) Carbohydrate (C) Lipid (D) Nucleic Acid (E) More than one of these 7. Which of the following compounds/bonds forms as a direct result of a dehydration reaction? (A) Disaccharide (B) Peptide bond (C) Hydrogen bond (D) More than one of the above (E) All of the above 8. How can you differentiate between the atomic number and mass number of an atom? (A) Atomic number is the number of protons while mass number is the number of protons + electrons (B) Atomic number is the number of protons while mass number is the number of protons + neutrons (C) Atomic number is the number of protons while mass number is the number of neutrons + electrons (D) Atomic number is the number of neutrons while mass number is the number of protons. (E) Atomic number is the number of protons while mass number is the number of neutrons. 9. What happens when an unsaturated fat is fully hydrogenated? (A) Hydrogen is added to the fatty acid chain (B) The melting point is raised (C) The fatty acid chain is straightened (D) A and C (E) All of the above 2

BIOL | 1001 | General Biology | homework | BIOL 1001 Exam 1 practice ques

CHAPTER 14 1. Lowering the expression of the MyoD gene would tend to _______ the activity of cyclin- dependent kinases. This activity would tend to _______ diﬀerentiation of muscle cells. A. increase; enhance B. increase; retard C. decrease; enhance D. decrease; retard E. decrease; have no eﬀect on 1. If a human fetus is exposed to chemicals that lead to the overexpression of Sonic hedgehog , the baby will likely have A. webbed ﬁngers and toes. B. two thumbs on each hand. C. two “little ﬁngers” on each hand. D. an elongated neck. E. a shortened neck. 1. Which of the following properties is required for an organism to undergo development? A. It must be diploid during some part of its life cycle. B. It must be multicellular during some part of its life cycle. C. The embryo must be contained within a protective structure during some part of its life cycle. D. All of the above E. None of the above 1. Diﬀerentiated cells in the process of forming the liver of a mouse provide an example of A. diﬀerentiation. B. determination. C. apoptosis. D. induction. E. morphogenesis. 1. Which of the following statements about hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is false ? A. It involves pluripotent stem cells. B. It makes use of the patient's own stem cells. C. It is carried out because some treatments against cancer also kill hematopoietic cells. D. It leads to the production of both red and white blood cells. E. All of the above are true; none is false. 1. The process of cytoplasmic segregation would be a partial answer to which of the following questions? A. How can one reset a diﬀerentiated cell such that it can produce many diﬀerent cell types? B. How can so many diﬀerent cell types come from the egg, which is a single cell? C. What roles do transcription factors play in controlling cell diﬀerentiation? D. What new technique was used by Yamanaka and his colleagues to obtain induced pluripotent stem cells? E. What new technique was used in the cloning of Dolly the sheep? 1. The polarity of microﬁlaments in a cell is an example of a(n) A. cytoplasmic determinant. B. is an example of an inducer. C. is an example of a morphogen. D. All of the above E. None of the above 1. Which of the following phenomena represents a contradiction to Francois Jacob's view of evolution as a tinker? A. Parallel phenotypic evolution B. The sudden appearance of a new structure C. Modiﬁcations of existing structures leading to new structures D. Heterochrony E. The conservation of developmentally important genes across distantly related organisms 1. Which of the following is most conducive for parallel phenotypic evolution? A. Heterochrony B. Genomic equivalence C. The conservation of important developmental genes D. The sudden appearance of a new structure E. The capacity of organisms to use information to predict future conditions 1. Yolk molecules tend to accumulate in the vegetal half in the fertilized eggs of most animals, and the presence of yolk can slow down cell division. Based on this observation, which of the following statements is most likely to be true? A. Assuming that there has been no movement, cells in the vegetal half of the embryo should be larger than those in the animal half. B. Assuming that there has been no movement, cells in the vegetal half of the embryo should be smaller than those in the animal half. C. Polarity exists in the fertilized egg. D. Both a and c E. Both b and c

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