General Biology

Mastery Quiz Quesons Chapter 10 Question 1: (see full question) The mechanism by which the information contained in DNA is coded into a complementary RNA copy is called: You selected: transcription. Correct Question 2: (see full question) Genotype is to phenotype as: You selected: recipe is to cookie. Correct Question 3: (see full question) During transcription the DNA sequence of a gene is copied into a RNA molecule by: You selected: RNA polymerase. Correct Question 4: (see full question) A ribosome: You selected: All of the above are correct answers. Correct Question 5: (see full question) The expression of a gene to form a polypeptide occurs in two major steps. What are these two steps in their correct chronological order? You selected: transcription and then translation Correct Question 1: (see full question) "The sequence of the DNA strand that is transcribed is complementary and antiparallel to the mRNA that is produced." What does this statement mean? You selected: mRNA contains the corresponding base (i.e., G instead of C) to the original DNA base and runs in the opposite direction of the DNA template strand. Correct Question 2: (see full question) During translation, chain elongation continues until: You selected: a stop codon is encountered. Correct Question 3: (see full question) Which of the following correctly describes the flow of information during gene expression? You selected: DNA → mRNA → tRNA → amino acid Correct Question 4: (see full question) The codon AUG that codes for methionine is also known as: You selected: the start codon. Correct Question 5: (see full question) The three nonsense codons that do not code for any amino acid; UAA, UAG, and UGA are also known as: You selected: stop codons. Correct Question 1: (see full question) "The genetic code is redundant but not ambiguous." This staement means that: You selected: some amino acids can be coded for by more than one codon, but no codon codes for more than one amino acid. Correct Question 2: (see full question) During transcription, at the point where the DNA strand being copied has an adenine, _______________ is added to the mRNA. You selected: a uracil Correct Question 3: (see full question) If a sequence of DNA is 5′-AAA TTT CCC-3′, the RNA that results from the transcription of this sequence will read: You selected: 3′-UUU AAA GGG-5′ Correct Question 4: (see full question) The genetic code is written in three letter words using a four letter alphabet. The maximum number of codons possible in the genetic code is: You selected: 64 Correct Question 5: (see full question) The process of using the information encoded in mRNA molecules to assemble polypeptides from amino acids is called: You selected: translation. Correct Question 1: (see full question) Alternate versions of a gene are called _______________. They can code for different ________________ of the same character. You selected: alleles; traits Correct Question 2: During transcription the DNA sequence of a gene is copied into

BIOL | 1001 | General Biology | assessment | Mastery Quiz Quesons Chapter 

3. Which of the following statements about continental drift is true? A. When it was proposed, the idea received almost immediate acceptance. B. Continents move because rising magma exerts tremendous pressure on the plates that ﬂoat on top of it. C. Deep rift valleys have been generated from the same process that causes continental drift. D. Both a and b E. Both b and c 4. Which of the following statements about climate and Earth's history is false ? A. The climate during the Quaternary has not been stable. B. Climate refers to long-term expectations of weather across the seasons at a given location. C. Temperature changes are usually associated with changes in glaciation. D. We are living in a rather cool period of time. E. All of the above are true; none is false. 6. Larger single-celled organisms require a higher oxygen concentration than smaller ones do because the large cells A. have a faster metabolic rate per unit mass. B. have a slower metabolic rate per unit mass. C. have a lower surface area-to-volume ratio. D. have a greater surface area-to-volume ratio. E. divide more quickly than small cells do. 7. Approximately _______ fossil species have been described. A. 3,000 B. 30,000 C. 150,000 D. 1.7 million E. 10 million 8. In the late Precambrian, the ﬁrst _______ evolved. A. vascular plants B. multicellular eukaryotes C. jawed ﬁsh D. photosynthetic bacteria E. insects 9. The Cambrian explosion started _______ the Cambrian and lasted for _______ of years. A. before; tens of thousands B. before; millions C. during; hundreds D. during; tens of thousands E. during; millions 10. Fishlike amphibians began to occupy land during the A. Cretaceous. B. Cambrian. C. Devonian. D. Silurian. E. Holocene. Reading Quiz Ch 18 . Which of the following leads to the formation of mountain ranges? A. The mantle pushing against a lithospheric plate B. Lithospheric plates moving sideways past one another C. One lithospheric plate sliding under another D. Magma pushing plates apart E. None of the above See Concept 18.2 : Changes in Earths Physical Environment Have Aﬀected the Evolution of Life 2. Near the ends of several geological periods, including the Devonian, Permian, and the Triassic, sea level _______ dramatically, most likely due to _______. A. rose; increased glaciation B. rose; decreased glaciation C. rose; cessation of continental drift D. fell; increased glaciation E. fell; cessation of continental drift 3. Which of the following statements about oxygen and ancient Earth is true? A. The atmosphere of early Earth contained almost as much free oxygen as present-day Earth, but most of this oxygen was lost in the Cambrian. B. Early bacteria generated free oxygen as a by-product of the chemical splitting of water. C. The oxygen-generating cyanobacteria have gone extinct. D. All of the above E. None of the above 4. Which of the following led to increases in atmospheric oxygen? A. The ﬁrst photosynthetic bacteria B. The ﬁrst aerobic bacteria C. The proliferation of ﬂowering plants

BIOL | 1001 | General Biology | homework | 3. Which of the following stat

CHAPTER 14 1. Lowering the expression of the MyoD gene would tend to _______ the activity of cyclin- dependent kinases. This activity would tend to _______ diﬀerentiation of muscle cells. A. increase; enhance B. increase; retard C. decrease; enhance D. decrease; retard E. decrease; have no eﬀect on 1. If a human fetus is exposed to chemicals that lead to the overexpression of Sonic hedgehog , the baby will likely have A. webbed ﬁngers and toes. B. two thumbs on each hand. C. two “little ﬁngers” on each hand. D. an elongated neck. E. a shortened neck. 1. Which of the following properties is required for an organism to undergo development? A. It must be diploid during some part of its life cycle. B. It must be multicellular during some part of its life cycle. C. The embryo must be contained within a protective structure during some part of its life cycle. D. All of the above E. None of the above 1. Diﬀerentiated cells in the process of forming the liver of a mouse provide an example of A. diﬀerentiation. B. determination. C. apoptosis. D. induction. E. morphogenesis. 1. Which of the following statements about hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is false ? A. It involves pluripotent stem cells. B. It makes use of the patient's own stem cells. C. It is carried out because some treatments against cancer also kill hematopoietic cells. D. It leads to the production of both red and white blood cells. E. All of the above are true; none is false. 1. The process of cytoplasmic segregation would be a partial answer to which of the following questions? A. How can one reset a diﬀerentiated cell such that it can produce many diﬀerent cell types? B. How can so many diﬀerent cell types come from the egg, which is a single cell? C. What roles do transcription factors play in controlling cell diﬀerentiation? D. What new technique was used by Yamanaka and his colleagues to obtain induced pluripotent stem cells? E. What new technique was used in the cloning of Dolly the sheep? 1. The polarity of microﬁlaments in a cell is an example of a(n) A. cytoplasmic determinant. B. is an example of an inducer. C. is an example of a morphogen. D. All of the above E. None of the above 1. Which of the following phenomena represents a contradiction to Francois Jacob's view of evolution as a tinker? A. Parallel phenotypic evolution B. The sudden appearance of a new structure C. Modiﬁcations of existing structures leading to new structures D. Heterochrony E. The conservation of developmentally important genes across distantly related organisms 1. Which of the following is most conducive for parallel phenotypic evolution? A. Heterochrony B. Genomic equivalence C. The conservation of important developmental genes D. The sudden appearance of a new structure E. The capacity of organisms to use information to predict future conditions 1. Yolk molecules tend to accumulate in the vegetal half in the fertilized eggs of most animals, and the presence of yolk can slow down cell division. Based on this observation, which of the following statements is most likely to be true? A. Assuming that there has been no movement, cells in the vegetal half of the embryo should be larger than those in the animal half. B. Assuming that there has been no movement, cells in the vegetal half of the embryo should be smaller than those in the animal half. C. Polarity exists in the fertilized egg. D. Both a and c E. Both b and c

BIOL | 1001 | General Biology | homework | CHAPTER 14 1. Lowering the exp

BIOL 1001 Exam 1 practice questions (Kessler) FA19 1. A covalent bond is the sharing of _______ between atoms while an ionic bond is the _______. (A) Neutrons; sharing of electrons (B) Electrons; electric attraction between two atoms (C) Protons; electric attraction between two atoms (D) Protons; sharing of electrons (E) Electrons; transfer of electrons from one atom to another 2. Irn-Bru is a popular soft drink in Scotland. Us Scots love it, but many others just don’t “get it”, arguing that it tastes odd. Compared to the pH of Coke (around 3.0), Irn-Bru tests at a reasonable pH of 5.0. So, I’m arguing back that regardless the odd taste, In- Bru is healthier for teeth! What is the H + ion concentration difference between Irn-Bru and Coke? (A) Coke has 100x more H + ’s (B) Irn-Bru has 100x more H + ’s (C) Coke has 1000x more H + ’s (D) Coke has 200x more H + ’s (E) Irn-Bru has 200x more H + ’s 3. In order to market Irn-Bru in the United States, you want to conduct a controlled experiment to prove that it is better for one’s teeth than Coke. You use extracted teeth and quantify the amount of enamel erosion in a 24-hour period. You then conduct a statistical test to determine if Irn-Bru eroded the enamel less than Coke. What would the null hypothesis be in this particular experiment? (A) Coke will cause more enamel erosion than Irn -Bru. (B) There will be no difference in enamel erosion between Coke and Irn-Bru. (C) If there’s no difference in the enamel erosion between Coke and Irn-Bru, then the pH’s aren’t different. (D) Irn-Bru will cause more enamel erosion than Coke. (E) None of these are a valid null hypothesis. 4. Which conclusion would prove that Irn-Bru is better for your teeth than Coke, and what statistical test would be most appropriate for this experiment? (A) p>0.05; reject the null hypothesis; Student’s t-test (B) p<0.05; accept the null hypothesis; Student’s t-test (C) p>0.05; accept the null hypothesis; Standard deviation (D) p<0.05; reject the null hypothesis; Student’s t-test (E) p<0.05; reject the null hypothesis; Standard deviation 1 BIOL 1001 Exam 1 practice questions (Kessler) FA19 5. Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules, the solute molecule in the center of the figure below is most likely: (A) nonpolar (B) hydrophobic (C) uncharged (D) negatively charged (E) positively charged 6. If an unknown compound is made up of carbons, hydrogens, and oxygens in a 1:2:1 ratio you immediately know that this compound is a… (A) Protein (B) Carbohydrate (C) Lipid (D) Nucleic Acid (E) More than one of these 7. Which of the following compounds/bonds forms as a direct result of a dehydration reaction? (A) Disaccharide (B) Peptide bond (C) Hydrogen bond (D) More than one of the above (E) All of the above 8. How can you differentiate between the atomic number and mass number of an atom? (A) Atomic number is the number of protons while mass number is the number of protons + electrons (B) Atomic number is the number of protons while mass number is the number of protons + neutrons (C) Atomic number is the number of protons while mass number is the number of neutrons + electrons (D) Atomic number is the number of neutrons while mass number is the number of protons. (E) Atomic number is the number of protons while mass number is the number of neutrons. 9. What happens when an unsaturated fat is fully hydrogenated? (A) Hydrogen is added to the fatty acid chain (B) The melting point is raised (C) The fatty acid chain is straightened (D) A and C (E) All of the above 2

BIOL | 1001 | General Biology | homework | BIOL 1001 Exam 1 practice ques

1. Which features of life and the cell cycle do not contribute to inheritable genetic variation in a species? A) Independent assortment of chromosomes in meiosis B) Crossing Over in meiosis C) Random mutation in somatic tissue D) Zygotes produced by the fusion of two uniquely produced gametes. E) C and D Use the following to answer questions 2-4. The p53 protein monitors cellular DNA for damage. If damage is detected, p53 halts the cell cycle and activates repair enzymes. Once DNA damage has been repaired, p53 allows cellular division to continue. In the cases where the DNA damage can not be repaired, p53 directs the cell to kill itself. 2. Human cells typically spend most of their time is G 0 or G 1 . If DNA damage is detected, at which checkpoint is p53 most likely to halt cell cycle progression until the DNA damage is ﬁxed? A) Spindle checkpoint B) G 2 /M checkpoint C) G 1 /S checkpoint D) Either A or B E) All of the above. 3. Suppose a human cell has a functional p53 but carries a mutation that eliminates the ability of the cell to kill itself. What would be the most likely outcome of the cell cycle in this cell if the p53 protein detected unrepairable DNA damage? A) Cell division could continue as the cycle lacks the ability to kill itself. B) A long as p53 was active, the cell cycle would halt at the G1/S checkpoint. C) The cell would be likely to turn cancerous as damaged cells continued to divide. D) The cell would arrest via the Spindle checkpoint when chromosomes failed to line up during metaphase. E) Both A and C 4. In the picture above, p53 is acting A) as a proto-oncogene because when it is mutated it acts as an oncogene. B) as an oncogene, because cells become cancerous without it. C) as a tumor-supressor gene, because it halts cellular division of damaged cells. D) both A and B E) both A and C 5. Suppose your evil roommate has a plan to engineer a group of cells to have the same receptor for the protein epinephrine. Your roommate hopes to control the world by making all cells to respond identically to the protein epinephrine. Are you worried that your roommate’s plan will be successful? A) Yes, the same receptor will cause the same response. B) No, surface receptors on a diﬀerent cells are never the same. C) No, G protein-coupled receptors require a GXF to modulate a signal transduction. D) No, the same type of receptor can have diﬀerent transduction pathways to create diﬀerent cellular responses. E) B and D Use the following to answer questions 6-7. Nondisjunction is the failure of chromosomes to segregate to opposite ends of the spindle during anaphase. Consider a human germ cell ( n =23) that is entering meiosis. Suppose you are observing a germ cell in which 22 pairs of homologous chromosomes segregate normally during anaphase I of meiosis but there is a nondisjunction of one homologous pair of chromosomes during anaphase I of meiosis. 6. At the end of meiosis you would observe A) 2 cells with 24 chromosomes and 2 cells with 22 chromosomes. B) 1 cell with 23 chromosomes and 1 cell with 22 chromosomes. C) 3 cells with 24 chromosomes and one cell with 22 chromosomes. D) 1 cell with 24 chromosomes and 1 cell with 22 chromosomes. E) 2 cells with 23 chromosomes, one cell with 22 chromosomes and one cell with 24 chromosomes.

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